Failure of Appeasement free essay sample

However, Hitler had no intentions to be appeased from the very beginning and did not take it seriously. He had his own goals and he was determined to succeed in any way. Appeasement was just slowing him down. Agreeing to the appeasement was just for show and it ended up a failure as Hitler never serious about compromising his demands with Britain and France. Thus, I agree to a large extend that the failure of appeasement to prevent World War 2 was the result of Nazi aggression, but it also failed because Hitler never had intentions to compromise his demands in the very first place. Hitler’s determination to achieve a better Germany caused Nazi aggression which led to the failure of appeasement. The appeasement policy encouraged Hitler to act aggressively and each time he was appeased, it inflated his appetite and confidence to act aggressively to achieve his aims. At the same time, any act of appeasement stood little chance of satisfying him. He would always want more and the more he was appeased, he more aggressive he became to get what he wanted. The appeasement policy also made him more confident his is plans and it also made Britain and France look weak. Thus, instead of controlling peace and negotiating Hitler’s demands, the appeasement policy made Hitler more determined and confident causing him to act aggressively which attacking Poland. This destroyed the appeasement policy’s main aim of preventing a general war and thus it was a failure. After the treaty of Versailles, Hitler vowed to gain back all the land that Germany had lost; this caused the Nazis to act aggressively to gain back what they lost during WW1. Also when Hitler signed the Munich agreement, he did not get the whole of Czechoslovakia, which was what he wanted. However he broke the agreement within 6 months and conquered the rest of Czechoslovakia. Despite this, Britain and France did not do anything to stop him but just kept appeasing him in any way just to avoid war. These led him into thinking that Britain and France were pushovers and gave him the confidence to act aggressively when attacking Poland as he thought that Britain and France were not much of a treat to him. Instead of installing peace, the appeasement caused Nazi aggression which led to the failure of appeasement. As a result, the failure of appeasement was the result of Nazi aggression. Hitler was impossible to appease and he kept making aggressive new demands. This led to the failure of the appeasement. After WW1, the treaty of Versailles took a lot of land from Germany. Hitler was determined to win back all that Germany had lost. His foreign policy’s main aim was to achieve a greater Germany by slowly conquering the lands around it. When being appeased, he made many aggressive demands but at the same time he did not keep to the terms in the agreements. Due to Hitler’s stubbornness and aggressiveness, the appeasement failed as Hitler was impossible to appease. This is proven by the Sudetenland crisis when Hitler demanded for Sudetenland. Chamberlain came to Germany for peace negotiations and agreed to give Hitler parts of Czechoslovakia. However, Hitler was not satisfied and kept making more demands, each demand more aggressive than before. Eventually, he was forced to sign the Munich agreement, whereby he gets Sudetenland and leave the rest of Czechoslovakia untouched. However, Hitler did not keep to the agreement and within six months, he broke the agreement and conquered the rest of Czechoslovakia. Hitler did so because he was unsatisfied with the appeasement results and resorted to using aggression to meet his own demands, causing the failure of the appeasement. However, there were other factors which caused to failure of appeasement. One of which was Hitler’s main intentions was to achieve a greater Germany at any cost as stated in his foreign policy. He had no intensions to be appeased in the first place. When Hitler signed the Munich agreement, it was just for show and to satisfy Britain and France. He never took Britain and France’s negotiations seriously and appeasement meant nothing to him. Though he signed the agreement, he had no intensions to follow the terms but to just carry on with his plans of expanding Germany’s land. The appeasement would just buy time but not prevent war. After signing the Munich agreement, he broke it within six month and conquered the rest of Czechoslovakia. This shows that he did not even plan to follow the agreement and agreeing to it was just to satisfy Britain and France. As a result, the failure of appeasement was caused because Hitler had no intensions of taking the appeasement seriously in the first place. But even so, the appeasement would not have failed if Hitler had considered other alternatives to achieve his goals instead of using aggression. It was Hitler’s aggression in conquering Czechoslovakia which caused the failure of appeasement. In conclusion, Hitler’s strong determination to achieve a better Germany and the excessive demands he made caused Nazi aggression which led to the failure of appeasement. Though Hitler also had no intensions of being appeased by Britain and France, it was his aggression in later conquering Czechoslovakia which led to the failure of appeasement. Thus, I agree to a large extend that the failure of appeasement to prevent World War 2 was the result of Nazi aggression, but to a small extend it also failed because Hitler never had intentions to compromise his demands in the very first place.